From: ce11son@yahoo.ca   
      
   On Wed, 9 Dec 2015 20:54:31 +0000 (UTC), "Adam H. Kerman"   
    wrote:   
      
   >Stephen Sprunk  wrote:   
   >>On 08-Dec-15 12:50, henhanna@gmail.com wrote:   
   >>>On Sunday, December 6, 2015 at 4:25:53 PM UTC-8, Stephen Sprunk wrote:   
   >   
   >>>>Congress only gave them jurisdiction over foreign sovereigns in very   
   >>>>specific circumstances, none of which applied here.  Therefore, they   
   >>>>lacked subject matter--not personal--jurisdiction.   
   >   
   >>>>They _did_ appear to have personal and territorial jurisdiction, but   
   >>>>without subject-matter jurisdiction too, that was moot.   
   >   
   >>>Hello.  Thanks for the comments.   That makes sense.   
   >   
   >>>>They _did_ appear to have ... territorial jurisdiction,   
   >   
   >>>            territorial jurisdiction -- really?   
   >>>https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Territorial_jurisdiction   
   >   
   >>Yes; due to "long arm" laws, as long as _part_ of the act (in this case,   
   >>the sale of her ticket by a US travel agent) is within the court's   
   >>territorial jurisdiction, then the rest of the act is as well.   
   >   
   >>This is how, for instance, the US prosecutes people for war crimes or   
   >>terrorism committed overseas; as long as _part_ of the act was in the US   
   >>(even if that part alone was completely legal!), we can prosecute them   
   >>for the _entire_ act.   
   >   
   >The foreign country in which the crime occurred has to cede jurisdiction,   
   >or the country in which the alleged criminal is in has to recognize   
   >US authority to prosecute and extradite.   
   >   
   Not necessary with war crimes :-   
   https://www.icrc.org/customary-ihl/eng/docs/v1_cha_chapter44_rule157   
   and IMU commonly not necessary where a state prosecutes one of its own   
   citizens even if the offence was entirely abroad.   
      
   >We're not going to prosecute crimes from Maoist China or Stalinist USSR.   
      
   --- SoupGate/W32 v1.03   
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