From: billy@anon.com
"JNugent" wrote in message news:mi0hv2Fa0vt
1@mid.individual.net...
>
> I am not being pedantic in the slightest. The CPS does not do what you said
they do -
> which was to judge whether a crime has been committed.
>
> It considers the evidence provided by the police and makes an assessment of
(a) whether
> it is in the public interest to prosecute and (b) whether there is any
chance of a
> conviction, given the evidence.
>
> In a legal newsgroup, pointing that out is absolutely not pedantry.
Yes. But only after they've "already" judged that a crime had been
committed !
Its only then, *afterwards* that they can then decide whether or not its
worth
prosecuting or not. But they first have to take that *first step*.
Unless you are seriously suggesting that the CPS considers evidence
provided by the police(1), then whether it is in the public interest to
prosecute
(2) and then whether there is any chance of conviction (3); in cases where
they
can't actually judge whether a crime has been actually committed or not.
bb
1. John Smith was seen walking down the road, and was acting suspiciously
2. Is it in the Public Interest to prosecute John Smith for acting
suspiciously ?
3 Is there any chance of a Jury convicting John Smith of acting
suspiciously ?
Given that no crime has actually been committed.
>
>
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